Problem 1. In the cells of square table are written the numbers $1$, $0$ or $-1$ so that in every line there is exactly one $1$, amd exactly one $-1$. Each turn we change the places of two columns or two rows. Is it possible, from any such table, after finite number of turns to obtain its opposite table (two tables are opposite if the sum of the numbers written in any two corresponding squares is zero)? Emil Kolev
Problem
Source: Bulgarian TST1/2006 Problem 1
Tags: linear algebra, matrix, induction, combinatorics unsolved, combinatorics
31.05.2006 17:01
I think it is possible. Let $S_n$ be the Symetric group, then, the table with $+1$, determines a permutation $\pi$, and the table with $-1$ determiens a permutation $\sigma$. Since changing lines is equivalnet to do transpositions, and transpositions generate $S_n$, we have that we can acomplish it if there exist permutations $a$, and $b$ such that: $a\pi b=\sigma$ and $a\sigma b=\pi$ but this happens if and only if: $a(\pi\sigma^{-1})^{-1}a^{-1}=(\pi\sigma^{-1})$ and $b^{-1}(\pi^{-1}\sigma)^{-1}b=(\pi^{-1}\sigma)$ But since every permutation is in the same conjugacy class as its inverse (since they have the same cycle lenghts) we can find such $a$ and $b$.
31.05.2006 17:16
Yes, I believe it's always possible to reach the opposite ($n\times n$) table. If $A$ is our initial matrix, basically, what we want is to find two permutation matrices $P,Q$ such that $PAQ+A=0$. First permute the rows so as to bring all $1$’s on the main diagonal. The $-1$’s lie on the squares $(i,\tau(i))$, where $\tau\in S_n$ is a permutation of $\overline{1,n}$. Since we can use induction on the number of cycles in this permutation, we may as well assume it’s an $n$-cycle $(\sigma(1),\ldots,\sigma(n)),\ \sigma\in S_n$. Let $U$ be the matrix obtained from the identity matrix by permuting its columns according to $\sigma^{-1}$. Then $UAU^t$ ($A$ is not the old matrix $A$, but the one obtained after performing the operations above) will have $1$ on positions $(i,i)$, and $-1$ on positions $(i,i+1)$ (all indices are modulo $n$). This means that we amy as wel assume that our matrix $A$ had this form to begin with. Now let $\tau_1,\tau_2\in S_n$ be the permutations $i\mapsto n-i$ and $i\mapsto n+1-i$ respectively (again, everything is modulo $n$), and let $P,Q$ be the permutation matrices which have $1$ on positions $(i,\tau_1(i))$ (for $P$) and $(\tau_2(j),j)$ (for $Q$). Then $PAQ$ will be $-A$, as desired. Edit: Oops