Problem

Source: Saint Petersburg olympiad 2024, 11.2

Tags: algebra, sequenses



Given a sequence $a_n$: \[ 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, \dots \](one '1', two '2' and so on) and another sequence $b_n$ such that $a_{b_n}=b_{a_n}$ for all positive integers $n$. It is known that $b_k=1$ for some $k>100$. Prove that $b_m=1$ for all $m>k$.