Let $ABC$ be a triangle with bisectors $BE$ and $CF$ meet at $I$. Let $D$ be the projection of $I$ on the $BC$. Let M and $N$ be the orthocenters of triangles $AIF$ and $AIE$, respectively. Lines $EM$ and $FN$ meet at $P.$ Let $X$ be the midpoint of $BC$. Let $Y$ be the point lying on the line $AD$ such that $XY \perp IP$. Prove that line $AI$ bisects the segment $XY$. Proposed by Tran Quang Hung - Vietnam
Problem
Source: 2023 IGO Adcanced P4
Tags: geometry, bisects segment
18.01.2024 17:19
very nice problem, I had fun with this during the test
18.01.2024 18:42
Amazing problem indeed. Solved with geogebra after the contest (basically I didn't really have the chance to try it seriously due to the impossible P2).
19.01.2024 16:18
A great beautiful and elegant diagram!
24.02.2024 11:19
Nice problem A solution without introducing the orthocenter of $\Delta BIC$: Let $DE_0F_0$ be the intouch triangle, $Q = AN \cap BE$, $R = AM \cap CF$. Then by Iran Lemma, $Q \in DE_0$ and $R \in DF_0$, and also $QR$ is the $A$-midline. Noting that $AE_0IF_0$ is a kite, we have $(AF_0 \cap E_0I) - (AE_0 \cap F_0I) \parallel E_0F_0 \parallel FM \parallel EN$, so by Desargues on $\Delta EE_0N$ and $\Delta MF_0F$ we have $E_0F_0 \cap EM \cap FN = P$. Note that a homothety at $P$ sends $(EE_0NQ)$ to $(FF_0MR)$, and $E_0, F_0$ are antihomologous points. But$(E_0F_0RQ)$ is the circle with diameter $AI$, so $Q$ and $R$ are also antihomologous points. In particular, $P$ lies on $QR$, the $A$-midline. Let $AI$ meet $BC$ at $G$, the external $\angle A$-bisector meet $BC$ at $G'$, $E_0F_0$ meet $BC$ at $D'$, $S$ be the point on $BC$ such that $AS$ is the polar of $P$ w.r.t. to the incircle, and $S' = AP \cap BC$. Since $AG' \parallel E_0F_0$ and $P$ is the midpoint of $AS'$, by intercept theorem we have that $D'$ is the midpoint of $G'S'$. Since $(SS';BC)=(DD';BC)=(GG';BC)=(X \infty_{BC}; BC) = -1$, by inverting about the circle with diameter $BC$ we get that $(SG;DX)=(S'G',D\infty_{BC})=-1$. Also, $AS \perp IP \perp XY$, so projecting from $A$ onto $XY$ we have $(\infty_{AS},(AI \cap XY);YX)=(SG;DX)=-1$, which proves the desired result.