Prove that for all $a,b>0$ with $a+b=2$, we have $$\left(a^n+1\right)\left(b^n+1\right)\ge4$$for all $n\in\mathbb N_{\ge2}$.
Problem
Source: IMOC 2017 A1
Tags: inequalities, algebra
12.08.2021 03:04
https://aops.com/community/p11366986 programjames1 wrote: By Cauchy-Schwartz, $$(a^n+1)(b^n+1)\ge (a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2)^2$$And so it suffices to prove that $a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2\ge 2$ which is true by the Power-Mean inequality.
12.08.2021 04:14
Okay, so I got the hint to do Cauchy Schwarz and so we will do it.
12.08.2021 04:16
jasperE3 wrote: https://aops.com/community/p11366986 programjames1 wrote: By Cauchy-Schwartz, $$(a^n+1)(b^n+1)\ge (a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2)^2$$And so it suffices to prove that $a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2\ge 2$ which is true by the Power-Mean inequality. Did you just post the problem and then the solution immediately after? If so what was the necessity to post the question in the first place?
12.08.2021 04:29
What was the necessity to not post the solution immediately after the question? Think
12.08.2021 04:32
centslordm wrote: What was the necessity to not post the solution immediately after the question? Think So others could solve without a solution given... That is quite frankly a non-sensical question, and I find it quite post-farmy as it did not answer my question and was completely unrelated to the topic. What is the intent of the post? Was it to look for other solutions? I'm very confused... Did @below just post a completely new question that had nothing to do with the topic? Shouldn't it be a new post?
12.08.2021 04:33
Prove that for all $a,b>0$ with $a+b=2$, we have $$\left(a+1\right)\left(b^2+1\right) \ge\frac{4}{9}(9-\sqrt 6)$$Equality holds when $a=1+\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}},b=1-\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}.$ Prove that for all $a,b>0$ with $a+b^2=2$, we have $$\left(a+1\right)\left(b+1\right) \le\frac{4}{27}(13+5\sqrt{10})$$Equality holds when $a=\frac{7+2\sqrt{10}}{9},b=\frac{\sqrt{10}-1}{3}.$ Prove that for all $a,b>0$ with $a+2b=2$, we have $$\left(a^2+1\right)\left(b^2+1\right) >\frac{9}{5}$$
17.08.2021 19:18
jasperE3 wrote: Prove that for all $a,b>0$ with $a+b=2$, we have $$\left(a^n+1\right)\left(b^n+1\right)\ge4$$for all $n\in\mathbb N_{\ge2}$. The solution below is incorrect. I am not sure how to fix it. If you have any suggestions, you can pm me or reply.
17.08.2021 19:42
bigbrain123 wrote: Expanding, we have $a^n b^n +a^n+b^n \geq 3$. From AM-GM, we have $ab \leq (\frac{a+b}{2})^2 = 1$. Thus, it suffices to prove $a^n + b^n \geq 2$. Um, no? The inequality $ab\le 1$ is correct, but points in the wrong direction for your estimate...
17.08.2021 19:46
Sorry @above, what do you mean? What is pointing in the wrong direction? I replaced $ab$ with its maximum $1$ on the lesser side, so if the maximum of the LHS is lesser than the RHS, then we proved it... right?
17.08.2021 19:51
Unfortunately, it is not the "lesser side"...
17.08.2021 19:54
:faceslap:. Ah yes, what a big silly. I suppose that I'll try again. Thanks for your correction!
17.08.2021 20:23
bigbrain123 wrote: I'm not too sure if my contradiction argument is rigorous Unfortunately, reversing all the logical arrows by formulating an argument as a proof by contradiction does not turn a wrong argument in a correct one. From $a^nb^n+a^n+b^n<3$ and $ab \le 1$ you simply cannot deduce that $a^n+b^n<2$. (There is also a minor error in your application of the mean inequality where the denominator should be $2$ and not $n$, but that one is harmless.)
31.12.2021 13:14
Any solution...?
31.12.2021 16:05
lazizbek42 wrote: Any solution...? See #2,#3.
01.01.2022 13:22
Jasper E3 I think wrong solution.
01.01.2022 21:56
By Cauchy-Schwartz, $$(a^n+1)(b^n+1)\ge (a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2)^2$$And so it suffices to prove that $a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2\ge 2$ But $2* (a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2) +2*n - 4$ $=$ $(2* a^\frac{n}2 + n - 2) +(2* b^\frac{n}2 + n - 2)\ge n*a + n*b = 2n$ $by$ $AM-GM$ So $a^\frac{n}2+b^\frac{n}2\ge 2$ $ and$ $ we$ $ are $ $ done.$
02.01.2022 01:21
lazizbek42 wrote: Jasper E3 I think wrong solution. #3 is wrong but #2 is fine.
02.01.2022 02:33
What's wrong with #3?
02.01.2022 02:56
This is a reversed inequality: Quote: we have $a^{\frac{n}{2}}+b^{\frac{n}{2}} \geq 2\sqrt{(ab)^{\frac{n}{2}}}$. The maximum value of $ab$ is $1$, so the maximum value of this is just $2\sqrt{1}=2$ as desired.
02.01.2022 07:42
All solutions wrong or not complete
02.01.2022 07:45
The solution in post 2 is correct.
02.01.2022 10:24
exactly this error, Solution 2.
02.01.2022 11:16
$(a^n+1)(1+b^n)(1+1)(1+1)...(1+1)\ge (a+b)^n=2^n$ $(a^n+1)(1+b^n)\ge 4$ Holder's inequality