Problem

Source: APMO 2015 Problem 2

Tags: function, algebra



Let $S = \{2, 3, 4, \ldots\}$ denote the set of integers that are greater than or equal to $2$. Does there exist a function $f : S \to S$ such that \[f (a)f (b) = f (a^2 b^2 )\text{ for all }a, b \in S\text{ with }a \ne b?\] Proposed by Angelo Di Pasquale, Australia